Riverbed Certified Solutions Professional : 199-01 Exam

The following topics are covered under the RCSP exam. More detailed information on the exam content can be found by reviewing the RCSP Blueprint.


RiOS – General Theory


Basic Deployment


Advanced Deployment


Configuration


Troubleshooting


Maintenance and Monitoring


Features (i.e. PFS, HS-TCP, Pre-population, etc.)


Getting Started






As the RCSP exam is geared towards individuals who have both the theoretical knowledge and hands on experience with the RiOS product suite, ensuring proficiency in both areas is crucial towards passing the exam. For individuals starting out with the process, we recommend the following steps to guide you along the way:






Step One: Building Theoretical Knowledge






The easiest way to become knowledgeable in deploying, maintaining, and troubleshooting the RiOS product suite is to take a Riverbed sanctioned training class. To ensure the greatest possibility of passing the exam, it is recommended that you review the RCSP Blueprint and ensure your familiarity with all topics listed, prior to any examination attempts.






Step Two: Gaining Hands-on Experience






While the theoretical knowledge will get you halfway there, it’s the hands-on knowledge that can get you over the top and allow you to pass the exam. Since all deployments are different, providing an exact amount of experience required is difficult. Generally, we recommend that resellers and partners perform at least five deployments in a variety of technologies prior to attempting the exam. Alternatively, having started from the design and deployment phase and having at least 6 months of experience in a production environment would be beneficial.






Step Three: Taking the Exam






The final step in becoming an RCSP is to take the exam at a Pearson Vue authorized testing center. To register for any Riverbed Certification exam, please visit http://www.pearsonvue.com/riverbed






Exam Specifications






Exam Number: 199-01


Exam Name: Riverbed Certified Solutions Professional


Number of Questions: 70


Total Time: 75 minutes for exam, 15 minutes for Survey and Tutorial (90 minutes total)


Exam Language: English Only


Passing Score: 700 out of 1000 (70%)


Special Accommodations: Yes (must submit written request to Pearson Vue for: ESL or ADA accommodations; includes time extensions and/or a reader)


Exam Provider: Pearson Vue


Offered Locations: Worldwide (4200 testing locations worldwide)


Certification Expires: Yes, 2 years (must recertify every 2 years, no grace period)


Wait Between Failed Attempts: Yes, 3 days


Pre-requisites: No (although taking a Riverbed training class is highly recommended) Available to: Everyone (Partners, customers, employees, etc)


Cost: $150.00 (USD)


Number of Attempts Allowed: Unlimited (though statistics are kept)


QUESTION 30



What is the purpose at configuring “Connection Forwarding”?


1) To ensure proper operation for serial clustering


2) To overcome network asymmetry


3) To handle an active-passive serial fail-over


4) To ensure optimal performance for serial cascading


5) To provide stateful session information for transparent Steelhead failover






A. 1


B. 2


C. 2,4


D. 1,2,3


E. 1,2,3,4






Answer: B






QUESTION 31


A customer is seeking performance improvement for a one-time bulk CIFS drag & drop of already-compressed files across a high-latency DS3 WAN link. Which of the following technologies contributes most significantly to performance improvement in this specific environment?






A. Data Streamlining First-pass LZ compression


B. Data Streamlining: SDR disk-based data reduction


C. Transport Streamlining General TCP optimizations


D. Application Streamlining CIFS Transaction Perdition


E. Management Streamlining: Central Management Console






Answer: D






QUESTION 32


Where in the Steelhead appliance can you verify duplex errors? (Select 2 responses)?






A. Interface Statistics


B. Link State Statistics


C. Neighbor Statistics


D. QoS Statistics


E. Log messages






Answer: AE






QUESTION 33


A Steelhead can belong to more than one group in the CMC.






A. True


B. False






Answer: A






QUESTION 34


The two types of Microsoft SQL optimizations that can be performed by Steelhead appliances are: (Select 2 responses)






A. Pre-acknowledgements


B. Pre-fetching of data


C. Application Learning


D. Heuristic SQL Selects






Answer: AB






QUESTION 35


What configuration parameters can be sot in the GUI/CLI for Connection Forwarding?


1) Enable Connection Forward


2) Port


3) Keep-Alive Interval


4) Disconnection Time


5) Neighbor IP






A. 1,2


B. 2,3


C. 3,4,5


D. 1,2,3,5


E. 1,2,34,5






Answer: D






QUESTION 36


In this particular connection forwarding scenario, it should take about 15 seconds to detect a neighbor failure. Implement this on the Steelhead appliance by manipulating the neighbor keepalive interval to an appointee value.






A. in-path neighbor keepalive 5


B. in-path neighbor keep-alive interval 5


C. in-path neighbor interval 5


D. in-path neighbor keepalive interval 5






Answer: D






QUESTION 37


Which of the following peering role types are configurable on a Steelhead appliance?


1) Discard


2) Deny


3) Auto


4) Accept


5) Pass






A. 1,2


B. 2,3


C. 3,4,5


D. 1,2,3


E. 1,2,3,4,5






Answer: C






QUESTION 38


In version 3x, what models support HS-TCP?






1) 100/200


2) 520/1020


3) 2010


4) 3010


5) 5520


6) 6020






A. 1,2


B. 5,6


C. 4,5,6


D. 3,4,5,6


E. 1,2,3,4,5,6






Answer: B






QUESTION 39


What is the default connection forwarding keepalive interval?






A. 1 second


B. 3 seconds


C. 5 seconds


D. 10 seconds E. 15 seconds






Answer: D






QUESTION 40


In the accompanying figure, three (3) TCP connections are to be established. There is one connection between CLIENT12 and SH12, one between SH12 and SH10, and the other between SERVER1 and SH10. Assume SH10 is a higher model than SH11, and the WCCP dynamic load distribution behavior is preserved. Assume that a packet being optimized by SH10 incorrectly ends up on SH11 (due to load balancing error, or similar). How can you ensure that this packet is correctly returned to SH10?






A. Set the WCCP weight of SH10 to be higher than that of SH11


B. Use fixed-target rules explicitly at SH12 to peer to SH10. C. Enable destination IP hash and destination port hash


D. Enable destination IP hash and source port hash


E. Enable destination IP hash and source IP hash


F. Enable connection forwarding






Answer: F






QUESTION 41


In the accompanying figure, instead of using redirect-lists at R1, Customer A prefers to control the redirection of traffic at the server-side Steelhead appliances SH10 and SH11.Assume the web service en the server is running on port80, while the FTP service uses active FTP (puff 21 for control and 20 for data), how can this be achieved? (Multiple answers)






A. For Traffic from CLIENT12 to SERVER1, create WCCP service group 92 en SH10 and SH11, enable destination ports, and add ports 21 and 80


B. For Traffic from CLIENT12 to SERVER1, create WCCP service group 81 on SH10 and SH11, enable destination ports, and add ports 21 and 80


C. For return traffic from SERVER1 to CLIENT12, create WCCP service group 91 on SH10 and SH11, enable source puffs, and add ports 20


D. For return traffic from SERVER1 to CLIENT12, create WCCP service group 92 on SH10 and SH11, enable source ports, and add port 21 and 80


E. For traffic from CLIENT12 to SERVER1, create WCCP service group 91 en SH10 and SH11, enable destination ports, and add ports 20 and 80.






Answer: AC






QUESTION 42


Which of the following pieces of information is NOT provided within a Netflow v5 flow entry?






A. Source IP Address


B. Destination IP Address


C. Number of Packets


D. Source Subnet Mask


E. Number of Bytes






Answer: D






QUESTION 43


In the accompanying figure, SH3 and SH4 are able to optimize FTP and HTTP sessions between Client4l and the respective application hosts Server31 and Server32. However.optimization does out happen for Client42 and these application hosts. A quick check on SH3 and SH4 registers neither optimized nor pass-through traffic from Client42. Client42 is able to ping Client4l and the in-path address of SH4. Note that SH3 and SH4 are in auto- discovery mode. What is the likely cause?






A. The default gateway of Client4l is configured wrongly


B. The default gateway of Client42 is configured wrongly.


C. The default gateway of SH3 is configured wrongly


D. The default gateway of SH4 is configured wrongly


E. The rooting protocol between R3 and R4 is configured

Answer: C







QUESTION 44


What should you do when you receive the following message?


[intercept NOTICE] sending kickoff RST 10.35.178.41:1168-> 10.110.141.30:1031.






A. Nothing.This is just a notice message.


B. This means that the Steelhead kickoff process sees a connection that it can optimize, so it sends a RST to the client. Verify whether the “Reset Existing Client Connections on Start Up” option is checked and uncheck it.


C. Switch off the Stealhead appliance


D. Create a specific pass-through rule to bypass the above source and destination hosts


E. Restart the Steelhead appliance.






Answer: B






QUESTION 45


In the accompanying figure, routers R1 and R2 are also NAT devices. SH10 end SH11 are deployed logically in-path while SH12 end SH13 are deployed physically in-path.






Steelheads SH10 and SH11 are in the public IP space of 100.1.1X.0/24. Steelheads SH12 and SH13 are in the private IP space at 172.18.13.0/24 and have static NAT translations to the public IP space 100.1.1×0/24 on R2. SERVER1, CLIENT12 and CLIENT13 are in the private IP address space of 172.18.lx.0/24.In this scenario, NAT is performed for Internet bound traffic but not for VPN bound traffic between the clients and SERVER1. The NAT for CLIENT12 is 172.18.12.99/24>> 100.1.12.99/24. The NAT for CLIENT13 is 172.18.19.88/24>>


100.1.13.99/24. The NAT for SERVER1 is 172.18.19.88/24 >> 100.1.19.88/24. PBR is used at R1 to intercept return traffic from SERVER1 to the clients and redirect it to SH10 or SH11. Additionally, R1 can route between the SERVER1 subnet and the SH10 and SH11 subnets. Which of the following fixed-target rules should be required to achieve optimization between CLIENT12 and CLIENT13 to SERVER1? (Multiple answers)






A. At SH12 in-path rule fixed-target srcaddr 172.18.12.99/32 dstaddr 172.18.19.88/32 dstport all target-addr 100.1.11.101 target-port 7800 backup-addr 100.1.11.101 backup- port 7800 rulenum 4


B. At SH13: T in-path rule fixed-target srcaddr 172.18.13.99/32 dstaddr 172.18.19.88/32 dstport all target-addr 100.1.11.101 target-port 7800 backup-addr 100.1.11.101 backup- port 7800 rulenum 4


C. At SH12: in-path rule fixed-target srcaddr 100.1.12.99/32 dstaddr 100.1.19. 88/32 dstport all target-addr 100.1.10.101 target-port 7800 backup-addr 100.1.11.101 backup- port 7800 rulenum 4


D. At SH13 in-path rule fixed-target srcaddr 100.1.13.99/32 dstaddr 100.1.19.88/32 dstport all target-addr 100.1.11.101 target-port 7800 backup-addr 100.1.10.101 backup- port 7800 rulenum 4


E. None of the above






Answer: AB






QUESTION 46


Which of the following in-path rule types silently drops packets for connections that match the rule?






A. Fixed-Target


B. Discard


C. Deny


D. Pass Through






Answer: C






QUESTION 47


When enabling WCCP v2 support, what does a multicast TTL value of 1 imply?






A. This enables WCCP v2 support.


B. The Steelhead appliance uses a multicast scope of 1 hap.


C. This enables WCCP multicast


D. This enables WCCP unicast






Answer: B






QUESTION 48


What is true of a Server Side Out Of Path (OOP) Configuration?






A. Client source IP address will he NAT’ed, or translated, to the Server Side Steelhead’s Primary Interface


B. Client source IP addresses will be NAT’ed, or translated, to the Server Side Steelhead’s WAN Interface


C. A Fixed Target rule is needed on the Client side Steelhead to direct traffic to the Server Side Steelhead’s WAN Interface


D. Traffic that originates from the location of the Server Side Out of Path Steelhead will not be optimized by that Steelhead


E. Both A and B


F. Both A and D


G. Both B and C






Answer:Pending


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QUESTION 49


What is the purpose of a RiOS transaction prediction module?


1) To perform write behind during saves/changes


2) To perform read ahead on data


3) To avoid complications with Quality of Service


4) To avoid the round trip times (RTT) of chatty applications protocols


5) To avoid complications associated with tcp injection tunneling






A. 1


B. 1, 2


C. 1, 2, 4


D. 1,2,3,4


E. 1, 2,3,4,5






Answer: C






QUESTION 50


A server-side logical in-path deployment is shown in the accompanying figure.






Additionally, SH12 is configured with a fixed target rule pointing to SH11. The client behind SH12 will out be able to establish a connection to SERVER1 as a logical loop will occur when the number of optimized connections in SH11 has reached the maximum system limit. What is the best way to resolve this issue?






A. Use the largest Steelhead appliance model


B. Enter the “in-path loopguard enable” command.


C. Use more than one Steelhead appliance.


D. Limit the number of TCP connections to be optimized


E. Put SERVER1 in a different subnet from SH11






Answer: E






QUESTION 51


One method by which the Steelhead accelerates traffic is by intercepting TCP requests sent across a WAN link, then segmenting and assigning references to the data and storing them internally. Once the data segments have gone through the process once, it is considered warm data and all future segments transmitted through the Steelhead are first compared to the data already internally stored. To further speed up transmissions, which of the following occurs?






A. It doesn’t send data segments that already have been transferred across the WAN, a reference is sent instead


B. If a file is emailed first then later posted to a file server using CIFS, it can recognize the content and avoid sending the original file data across the WAN again


C. It eliminates a large portion of the redundant bytes from transfers through data streamlining


D. It eliminates protocol inefficiencies through transport streamlining if a application specific optimization module applies E All of the above






Answer:Pending


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QUESTION 52


Assuming all available slots are populated with the largest available network cards, what is the maximum number of copper LAN-WAN pairs that can be handled by a single Steelhead 5010?






A.2


B.3


C.4


D.5


E.6






Answer: E






QUESTION 53


Data for inactive flows will got exported to a Netflow collector after 15 seconds of flow inactivity. ln order to reduce the amount of traffic sent across the WAN, you would like to increase this value to 1 minute. Which of the following CLI commando can be used to change the export timer for inactive flows to 1 minute? (Hint Use the calculator)






A. ip netflow inactive_to 60


B. ip flow-settiog inactive_to 60


C. ip netflow inactive_to 1


D. ip flow-settiog inactive_to 1


E. The export time of 15 seconds cannot be changed






Answer: B






QUESTION 54


When connection forwarding is in use, when a neighbor fails, the default behavior of the remaining neighbor will be to:






A. It will start to bypass traffic immediately


B. It will start to bypass Traffic only after about 30 seconds


C. It is transparent to the outage and will continue to optimize as per normal


D. It will cease to optimize for about 30 seconds and start to optimize again.






Answer: B






QUESTION 55


In the accompanying figure, where should the WCCP redirection take place fur return traffic originating from the servers to the clients, assuming redirect IN is used? (Multiple answers)






A. A


B. B


C. C


D. D


E. E






Answer: BC






QUESTION 56


During optimization, which of the following are predefined as service ports? (Select 2 responses)






A. 7800


B. 7801


C. 7802


D. 7810






Answer: AD






QUESTION 57


Where would the core files be located in the event of a Steelhead appliance crash?






A. var/opt/tms/sysdumps/


B. var/opt/tms/coredumps/


C. /var/opt/tms.snapshots/


D. /var/log/


E. var/log/snapshots/






Answer: C






QUESTION 58


Which of the following commands would allow you to generate a system dump from the CLI?






A. sysdump


B. dump generate


C. debug generate dump


D. sysdump generate dump


E. dump generate –w filename






Answer: C


QUESTION 58



Which of the following commands would allow you to generate a system dump from the CLI?


A. sysdump


B. dump generate


C. debug generate dump


D. sysdump generate dump


E. dump generate --w filename


Answer: C


QUESTION 59


You choose to deploy a Stealhead appliance logically in-path using Policy Based Rooting (PBR) as the traffic


redirection method. Additionally, you want to mark the DSCP value for active FTP as AF21 using route-maps.


Which route-map specified DSCP value is correct?


A. EF21 B 0x48


B. 0x58


C. 0xb8


D. 18


Answer: B


QUESTION 60


A transparent pre-population share is considered as what type of share?


A. Global


B. Local


C. Broadcast


D. Read-Write


Answer: A



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1. Which of the following is an option given in the First Steps application that runs automatically after installation?


A.Start the server.

B.Execute wsadmin.

C.Configure resources.

D.Run the Snoop servlet.

ANSWER: A

2. Which one of the following can be used to instantiate resource adapter classes for establishing and maintaining resource

connections?

A.a data source

B.connection factories

C.connection pool settings

D.a JMS activation specification

ANSWER: B

3. Global security is turned on for a federated cell using a file-based federated repository. The administrator created a new

security domain called App1Domain using local operating system registry and mapping it to the application server. The

administrator also created a new local operating system user ID App1Admin.

Which one of the following is true when the new security domain is enabled to secure Application1?

A.The administrator can access Application1.

B.The administrator can disable Application1 security.

C.App1Admin can disable Application1 security.

D.App1Admin can access the administrative console.

ANSWER: B

4. Aside from the administrative console and the addNode command, what other facilities does WebSphere Application Server

provide for federating nodes into cells?

A.wsadmin

B.The administrative agent

C.The Profile Management Tool (PMT)

D.Rational Application Developer Assembly and Deploy Module

ANSWER: C

5. When backing up WebSphere Application Server configuration and runtime settings, which of the following commands

would be relevant?

A.backupConfig -location location

B.restoreConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name

C.manageprofiles -backupProfile -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name

D.wsadmin -backupConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name

ANSWER: C

6. What can the system administrator do to distribute incoming HTTP traffic across a farm of Web servers?

A.Enable server affinity for each HTTP server in the cluster

B.Implement the Tivoli Access Manager as a load balancer

C.Implement the caching proxy server component of the Edge Components

D.Use the Load Balancer component of the Edge Components

ANSWER: D

7. What is the sequence of components which would typically be involved in the flow of a request from a Web browser to a

servlet?

A.External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and EJB Container

B.Load Balancer, Embedded HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and Web Container

C.Edge Component, HTTP Server Plug-in, external HTTP Server, and Web Container

D.External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in, embedded HTTP Server and Web Container

ANSWER: D

8. How could an administrator manage multiple stand-alone application servers on different hosts in a network?

By using:

A.a job manager which administers multiple application server nodes through administrative agents.

B.a deployment manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their node agents.

C.a high availability manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their administrative agents.

D.an administrative agent which administers multiple application server nodes through their administrative service.

ANSWER: A

9. Which type of server is recommended to be placed in the demilitarized zone (DMZ)?

A.Generic servers

B.Application servers

C.Managed HTTP servers

D.Unmanaged HTTP servers

ANSWER: D

10. What is the advantage of deploying more than one messaging engine and linking them together in a topology that has multiple

interconnected service integration buses (SIBus)?

A.Enable protocol transformation between buses.

B.Improve the availability of the persistent storage.

C.Spread messaging workload across multiple servers.

D.Preserve message ordering through the messaging engines.

ANSWER: C

11. Why does IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment utilize node groups to implement a distributed

environment? To:

A.segment multiple security domains within a WebSphere cell.

B.define the logical grouping of application servers to scale horizontally or vertically.

C.enable mixed nodes with different capabilities within the same cell for administration purposes.

D.allow application servers having the same applications installed to be grouped logically for workload management.

ANSWER: C

12. A system administrator wants to improve response time and system load of a Web application running in a clustered

environment.

What might the system administrator attempt to decrease the response time of the Web application?

A.Configure dynamic caching

B.Enable memory-to-memory replication

C.Configure session replication to use a database.

D.Ensure that all cluster members are in the same node group.

ANSWER: A

13. A system administrator needs to modify the configuration of an enterprise application within a flexible management

environment. The system administrator can make the modification using wsadmin scripts by connecting to which of the

following components?

A.Node agent

B.Job manager

C.Work manager

D.Administrative agent

E.Deployment manager

ANSWER: BE

14. What would have to be configured in order to implement memory-to-memory HTTP Session persistence?

A.Dynamic cache service and HTTP plug-in

B.Synchronization service and embedded Web server

C.Distributed environment settings in the web containers

D.Fast Response Cache Accelerator (FRCA) and external Web server

ANSWER: C

15. When configuring automated transaction peer recovery for recovering in-flight transactions from the transaction log, what is

required from the file system?

A.RAID disks must be used to host the transaction log

B.Exclusive read only file locks and the ability to invalidate them

C.File locking must be disabled for Network File System Version 4 (NFSv4)

D.Lease-based exclusive locks on files

ANSWER: D

16. What are the three possible replication types for the dynamic caching service?

A.Client mode

B.Server mode

C.Not shared

D.Push only

E.Both push and pull

F.Broadcast mode

ANSWER: CDE
 
 
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Q. 1 Click the Exhibit button. The exhibit shows information about data in

Jane's home directory. Which answer describes where the directory named dir1 is stored within the file

system.

A. In the inode associated with directory dir1

B. In the directory file called dir1

C. In the ACL associated with dir1

D. In the directory file called widgets

E. In the inode associated with directory widgets

F. In the ACL associated with widgets

Answer: D

Q. 2 Jane is trying to configure the swat utility. The software and man pages

are located in the /usr/sfw directory. When Jane attempts to use the man command the following message

appears:

$ man swat

No manual entry for swat.

Choose the command that Jane can execute to display the man page.

A. man /usr/sfw/swat

B. man -f /usr/sfw/swat

C. man -M /usr/sfw/man swat

D. man -s 1M swat

Answer: C

Q. 3 Click the Exhibit button. Examine the exhibit. Choose the answer the best

describes the 8 th field of the output of an ls command.

A. file creation time

B. inode change time

C. last access time

D. last modify time

Answer: D



Q. 4 Consider the following command:

$ cal 9 1752

The cal command is followed by which one of the following choices?

A. arguments

B. options

C. variables

D. preferences

Answer: A

Q. 5 Click the Exhibit button. Jane has listed the contents of her home

directory as shown in the exhibit. Choose which command she would have entered to produce this

output.



A. ls -lR

B. ls -lLR

C. ls -lr

D. ls -LR *

E. ls -lr *

Answer: A

Q. 6 Your logging into the system as user Val, you are notified upon login that

you must change your user password on the system. Your current password is 2co0lu! Choose the

password that meets the

requirements for a user changing the password on a Solaris 10 system.

A. 2co0l4u

B. valiscol

C. 2C00L4u2

D. 321 123!

Answer: C

Q. 7 Click the Exhibit button. The exhibit is a listing of your current directory.

Based on the information shown, choose the file from the listing that is a regular file.

A. acme

B. instance

C. screen

D. door_pipe

Answer: D

Q. 8 Tina has executed the following command:

$ affiliate.sh 2>>/var/log/worklog

Choose the statement that is true concerning this command.

A. stdin is redirected to a file.

B. stderr is redirected to a file.

C. stdout is redirected to a file.

D. all output from the script is redirected to a file.

Answer: B

Q. 9 Click the Exhibit button. The exhibit shows a listing of Jane's directory.

Consider the entry repair. Choose the commands that might have been used to create this file.



A. cp /export/home/jane/things/fixit /export/home/jane/repair

B. ln /export/home/jane/repair /export/home/jane/things/fixit

C. ln /export/home/jane/things/fixit /export/home/jane/repair

D. mkfile 32b /export/home/jane/repair

E. ln -s /export/home/jane/things/fixit /export/home/jane/repair

F. ln -s /export/home/jane/repair /export/home/jane/things/fixit

Answer: E

Q. 10 Jane is about to edit a file with the vi editor. She executes the following

command:

$ vi ./customer_sat.txt

Choose the vi editor mode that Jane will be using when the file is opened.

A. command mode

B. edit mode

C. last line mode

D. ex mode

Answer: A

Q. 11 Val has gathered information about the data stored in her home

directory using the following command line.

$ du -sk *
sort -n
tail > file2

Which answer correctly describes what happens when the command is invoked?

A. The tail command redirects stdin to file2

B. The sort command redirects stdout to the du command

C. The stdout from the du command is sent to the sort command

D. The stderr from the tail command will be sent to file2

Answer: C



Q. 12 Click the Exhibit button. The exhibit shows a listing of Jane's home

directory. Jane wants to delete the directory dir1. Choose the command that would remove only the dir1

directory.

A. rm ./widgets/*

B. rm ./widgets/dir1

C. rm -r ./widgets

D. rmdir ./widgets/dir1

Answer: D

Q. 13 Click the Exhibit button. The exhibit shows the first few lines of a system

run control script. In which shell is this script executed?



A. Bourne Shell

B. Z Shell

C. C Shell

D. Korn Shell

E. Bash Shell

Answer: A

Q. 14 Click the Exhibit button. Frank needs to add write access for the sales

group, so he uses the following command:

$ chmod g+w project543.dat

Choose which answer reflects the result of this command.



A. Only the sales group will be given write access to the file.

B. Only the sales group and market group will have write access to the file.

C. The sales group and market group and user jane will have write access to the file.

D. The sales group and market group and user jane and others will have write access to the file.

Answer: C

Q. 15 You have a default install of Solaris 10 on your desktop system. You are

user tim. Examine the following command and output.

$ ls -l project465.odt

-rw-r--r-- 1 tim tim 394 Apr 9 15:29 project465.odt

You need to allow another user access to write the file. You do not have access to the root account.

Which command can be used to grant write access to the file?

A. chown command

B. chgrp command

C. setfacl command

D. nischown command

Answer: C

Q. 16 Click the Exhibit button. Examine the exhibit. Based on the information

in this exhibit, which files can user Jane delete?

A. file1 file2 log

B. file2 log

C. file1 file3 log

D. file1 file2 file3 log

Answer: D



Q. 17 Frank executes the following single command line:

$ ln /export/home/frank/audio_books/enders_game /export/home/frank/bookdata

Choose the files that would result from executing this command.

A. -rw-r--r-- 2 frank frank 1699 Oct 29 00:51 enders_game

B. lrwxrwxrwx 1 frank frank 27 May 17 00:54 /export/home/frank/audio_books/enders_game ->

/export/home/frank/bookdata

C. -rw-r--r-- 2 frank frank 1699 Oct 29 00:51 bookdata

D. lrwxrwxrwx 1 frank frank 42 May 17 00:54 /export/home/frank/bookdata ->

/export/home/frank/audio_books/enders_game

Answer: C

Q. 18 You have a file that contains a list of parts in a single column. You need

to append the text string .ex2009 to each entry. You will use the vi editor and the last line mode to

append this text to each

entry. Which command will add the text correctly?

A. :%s/*/.ex2009/

B. :%s/.$/.ex2009/

C. :%s/$/.ex2009/

D. :%s/*$/.ex2009/

Answer: C

Q. 19 Click the Exhibit button. The exhibit shows a listing of Jane's directory.

Consider the first entry buttons. Choose the commands that might have been used to create this file.



A. cp snippets buttons

B. ln gadget buttons

C. ln snippets buttons

D. ln search buttons

E. cp gadget buttons

F. ln -s snippets buttons

Answer: B

Q. 20 Click the Exhibit button. Jane has listed the files in her home directory

as shown in the exhibit. Choose the answers that correctly describes the files in this directory. (Choose

three.)



A. The file fixit is a symbolic link to the file repair

B. The file buttons can be executed by a user in the sales group

C. The file gadget could be a hard link to the file buttons

D. The file search can be modified by users in the sales group

E. The file repair is a symbolic link to the file fixit

F. Users in the sales group can enter the widgets directory

Answer: C, E, F

Q. 21 Click the Exhibit button. This user is using the Korn shell. Which

command did the user execute to display the list shown in the exhibit?

A. fc -l 122-137

B. fc -l 122

C. fc -l 122 137

D. history



Answer: D


To get full 157 QA pdf contact directly to chanakya at itcertification39@gmail.com or itchanakya@ymail.com directly.

regards
Chanakya